AIPEU P3 CHQ

Ref: P/4-1/Examination                                                                                          Dated – 06.07.2020

To

The Secretary

Department of Posts

Dak Bhawan, New Delhi - 110001

Sub: -  Correction of Discrepancies in answer key before declaration  of  the  results of  LDCE (66.66%) for promotion to the cadre  of  Inspector of Posts  for  the  year  2016-2017, 2017-2018 and 2018-2019 held on 16-17 Nov 2019 and declaration of result after rectification.

Ref: -   Directorate letter no.-A-34013/01/2020-DE dated 24.06.2020

Sir,

With reference to above subject it is to bring to your kind notice that  in final answer key of LDCE (66.66%) for promotion to the cadre  of  Inspector of Posts  published vide Directorate letter no.-A-34013/01/2020-DE dated 24.06.2020 some of the answers published in the final key are wrong as per the available data. Some applicants raised objections about these wrong answers when the objections were called for after publishing the provisional key. But most of them were not corrected. Also some out of syllabus questions were also not ignored in the final answer key. Another important thing is some clear questions were also ignored resulting in getting marks to person who have marked wrong answer. This resulted in incorrect, imbalanced and improper merit list and selection list. This is purely injustice to meritorious candidates.

It is therefore requested to kindly re-examine key answers used for evaluation in respect of following questions and to publish revised selection list and merit list at earliest please. The questions having objections are as follows.

With regards,

Yours sincerely,

(R. N. Parashar)

General Secretary

Serial No.	Paper Number	Series of question booklet	Question Number	Question and options	Answer in final key	Correct answer as per the available data and ruling.
1.	I	A	6	Which of the following is true of postage stamps as mentioned in IPO Act 1898 (A)   Postage stamps are deemed to be stamps for the purpose of revenue. (B)   Postage stamps are deemed to be sovereign guarantee (C)   Postage stamps are deemed to be cash for the purpose of revenue (D)   Postage stamps are deemed to be equivalent to currency notes printed by the Reserve Bank of India.	D	A. (As per Rule  17 of IPO Act , 1898 “Postage stamps provided under section 16 shall be deemed to be stamps issued by Government for the purpose of revenue.”)
2.	I	A	10	Which of the following is correct as mentioned in the Consumer Protection Act 1986. (A)   A complaint can only be dismissed as frivolous or vexatious by the National commission (B)   A complaint can only be dismissed as frivolous or vexatious by the State commission (C)   A complaint can be dismissed as frivolous or vexatious by either the District forum, State Commission or  National commission (D)   A complaint can be dismissed as frivolous or vexatious by the High Court or Supreme Court of India	A	C. (Section 26 of Consumer Protection Act 1986 clearly mentioned that “ Complaint instituted before the District Forum ,the State Commission or as the case may be the National Commission is found to be frivolous or vexatious, it shall for reasons to be recorded in writing dismiss the complaint”)
3.	I	A	37	What is the preservation period of lists of silent accounts revived received from SBCO s (A)   Permanent record (B)   Two years (C)   Three years (D)   18 Months	Ignored	C. (As per the available list of preservation periods It should be preserved for 3 years.)
4.	I	A	41	As per the provisions of the post office Guide part II which of the following is not correct (A)   Exchange of money orders are governed by the Universal Postal Convention and its Detailed Regulations (B)   Exchange of Money orders is governed by special bi lateral agreement (C)   Exchange of Postal Orders are governed by special bilateral agreement (D)   The exchange of insured letter is governed by the Universal Postal Convention but not all countries admit insured articles.	B	A (As per the PO Guide Part II Rule 3(b) & Rule 3(c) of section -1 (General) Option (B)(C)(D) are available and correct Hence answer may be taken as (A).)
5.	I	A	45	Which of the following is the lates offering in CBS (A)   ATM interoperability of POSB (B)   Internet Banking (C)   Mobile Banking (D)   ATM Debit card	B	C. As per the syllabus communicated vide Dte. Letter no.7-14/2011 –SPB-II(1) dated 19th March 2018Point (5) under Paper-I “5) Savings Bank and Savings Certificates: b) Guidelines issued by Directorate from time to time on Core Banking Services” As per SB order no. 01/2019 dated 03.01.2019 internet banking has been introduced. As per SB order no. 11/2019 dated 14.10.2019 mobile banking has been introduced.
6.	I	A	75	The number of Post Offices which were connected to LED systems during the Swachh Bharath Abhiyan are roughly (A)   2500 offices (B)   3500 offices (C)   3000 offices (D)   4000 offices	B	D. As per annual report 2018-19 Chapter 13(Estate Management) Para 13.3 “During the period 1st  January , 2018 to 31st March 2019 total 20 Post Offices buildings, 650 India Post Payment Bank(IPPB) branch ,236 Post Office Passport Seva Kendra (POPSK), 2058 toilets were constructed. Besides LED have been installed in 4245 Post offices”
7.	I	A	100	The MNOP measures the following key performance indicators(KPIs) I.                    Transit analysis II.                  Scan compliance III.                Delivery status compliance IV.                Use of pin code on all articles V.                  Use of correct bag labels (A)   All of the above (B)   Only I ,II &III (C)   Only  I, II,III & IV (D)   Only I, II , III &V	C	A. (As per MNOP guide lines the following KPIs are monitored 1.       D+X  TD &NTD 2.       Missorts TD & NTD 3.       Full scan compliance TD & NTD 4.       % of TD articles without delivery scan even after 5 days of booking 5.       Missing Pin code 6.       Bags without proper bag label 7.       Duplicate barcode Usage of proper bag label is also given in PPT available in Indiapost website.
8.	I	A	102	The booking of Service Money Order needs authorisation of (A)   Supervisor (B)   Postmaster (C)   Either (A) or (B) (D)   No authorisation is required	Ignored	C. (In the new Back office environment Postmaster or the Supervisor as the case may be should authorise the Service Emo .By ignoring this clear question, marks were given to the candidates who have marked D option which is not justice.)
9.	I	A	129	What is the period of maternity leave that can be availed by female GDS? (A)   90days (B)   120 days (C)   180 days (D)   240 days	A	C. (As per the Office Memorandum dated 27th June 2018 female GDS with less than two surviving children may be granted maternity leave by an authority competent to grant leave for a period of 180 days from the date of its commencement. (OM will take effect from 01.07.2018) )

10.	II	A	105	In cases of Central Government Servants on deputation, the competent authority to grant advance or withdrawal from GPF will be (A)   His parent department (B)   Department to which he is on deputation (C)   Department of Personnel & Training(for all Central Government servants on deputation to any Ministry or Department) (D)   EPFO	Ignored	A. (Para 3 of GOI decision (1) in Rule 12 of GPF RULE 1960 clearly mentioned that “ During the period of a central Government employees deputation on foreign service , the competent authority in his parent department only can sanction advances/withdrawals to him from his provident fund account” Hence option A is the correct answer.)
11.	II	A	108	On the death of a GPF subscriber the person entitled to receive the amount shall be paid an additional amount which will be equal to the average balance in the account during the past three years immediately preceding the death of subscriber eligible for the Deposit –Linked insurance Revised scheme. The additional amount payable under the scheme shall however ,not exceed (A)   Rs Ten thousand (B)   Rs Fifty thousand (C)   Rs Sixty thousand (D)   Rs One lakh	Ignored	C. (It was clearly stated that the additional amount payable under the rule shall not excess Rs.60000 Under Rule 33(B) of GPF RULES 1960.)
12.	III	A	24	As per CCS (Conduct Rule) 1964, a Government servant is expected to? (A)   Remain absent without any kind of leave (B)   Not appear in a public place in a state of intoxication (C)   Give interview to media at his will (D)   None of the above	D	B. (As per CCS (Conduct Rule) 1964, Rule number 22(C) a Government servant is expected to not appear in a public place in a state of intoxication)
13	III	A	42	The executive power of the Union is vested in which one of the below (A)   Prime minister (B)   Home minister (C)   Vice-President (D)   President	Ignored	D. (As per the article 53(1) of Indian constitution “The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President  and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution”)
14	III	A	93	Provision related to “facts bearing on whether an act was accidental or intentional” is contained in: (A)   Section 21 of Indian Evidence Act (B)   Section 1 of Indian Evidence Act (C)   Section 15 of Indian Evidence Act (D)   Section 77 of Indian Evidence Act	C	Question is Out of syllabus (As per the syllabus communicated vide Dte. Letter no:7-14/2011-spb-ii(1) dated 19th March 2018 under paper -3 “facts bearing on whether an act was accidental or intentional” is not available in the syllabus.
15	III	A	121	Which section of Administrative Tribunals Act gives Power to punish for Contempt? (A)   Section 14 (B)   Section 15 (C)   Section 16 (D)   Section 17	D	No such Section exists now. As per The Administrative tribunals (Amendments) Act ,2006  the Section 17 is omitted with effect from 18th March 2006 vide Bill no. Xxviii of 2006.